This is obvious, but not the point. The question is: with German home ownership of 51%, and higher than Swiss 42%, how come the RATIO of mean/median wealth is 2.5 for Swiss and 6.2 for Germany.Switzerland is way richer than GER and NED.
Moreover, take Germany and Austria. 51% and 55% home ownership. Very similar Gini coefficient of about 0.3 after tax (measure of income inequaliity). And again, mean/median ratios are 6.2 and 2.9
Somebody at Credit Suisse (which seems was the original source of those numbers for means and medians) had a bug in his calculator