Aug 19th, 2003, 09:04 PM
Ok, so there's something thats been bothering me about the Justine Henin-Hardenne vs. Serena Williams match in the Semi's at the French Open. Serena complained that Justine didn't admit to the umpire that she wasn't ready for the serve. Well in that case if Serena had seen that Justine wasn't ready, why did she serve in the first place? I'd like to bet she wouldn't have complained if she'd won the point. Who's to say that Justine could hear and even if she could hear, her English isn't fluent. Regardless the point is that Serena had seen that Justine wasn't ready, so why did she serve in the first place?
What does anyone else think?
Aug 19th, 2003, 10:12 PM
You are very stupid! While Serena was following through she saw Justine Henin-Hardenne put up her hand and thats why she Faulted! GET YOUR FACTS STRAIGHT OR DON'T TALK!
Jun 5th, 2007, 10:22 PM
Actually her facts are straight as far as ANYONE but Serena knows, and we all tend to be overly emotional right after something that doesn't go well (post interview). Just as serving underhand is sneaky, so is serving when ones hand is up. Serena was ready and she served - the end. I am hardly willing to believe that either player was trying to do anything duplicitous; harboring ill will toward either is childish and silly. Now that said, it was Serena's right to serve - and it was Justine's right to let the point stand. I am unwilling to believe that Serena seeing Justines hand only when she was following through (which unless you are Serena you really don't know) affected her serve. I love them both, and appreciate their sportsman ship. When all is said and done, it does little for Henin or Williams fans to feel self righteous about what happened. It's rather pointless.:bounce: