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gentenaire
May 5th, 2005, 05:54 PM
(Since I can't be bothered to look for the old football thread)

I was wondering, how is it determined what leg is played where first in the Champions League semis?

I feel that the away goal rule is only fair when the duration of the match is the same for both legs.

Yes, I'm talking about the PSV-AC Milan match.

AC Milan wins 2-0 at home, PSV wins 2-0 at home, so all is square. They have to play extra time to decide the winner and since the second leg was played in Eindhoven, it suddenly meant AC Milan was through if they could pull off a draw in extra time (not 0-0 of course) whereas PSV had to win. That's not really fair, is it? It would only be fair should they then play some extra time in Milan too. Basically AC Milan received more time to score that away goal than PSV got. That's a bigger advantage than having home advantage, I think. Had the first leg been played in Eindhoven and the second in Milan, PSV would most likely be in the final.

Tati & Dani
May 5th, 2005, 06:15 PM
away goals in the extra time doesn't count double , so if it was 2-0 after 90 minutes , and 2-1 after 120 milan was in the final , was it 3-1 after 120 minutes then there where penalty's.

Tati & Dani
May 5th, 2005, 06:16 PM
And they draw it , for deciding who's playing first at home and who's playing the second match in their own stadium

gentenaire
May 5th, 2005, 06:41 PM
but it was 3-1, wasn't it?

gentenaire
May 5th, 2005, 06:48 PM
aah, but now I get it, the last two goals were scored in injury time, not extra time. I misunderstood the news report.

Tati & Dani
May 5th, 2005, 06:58 PM
aah, but now I get it, the last two goals were scored in injury time, not extra time. I misunderstood the news report.

yes it was in injury time ;)