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View Full Version : Really unimportant question, but I need your help


Snuffkin
Jun 3rd, 2003, 06:41 PM
People, I need your help.

I've been watching the French Open for a fair few years now and the same thing has always bothered me about the scoring announcements. The first deuce in a game is never called 'egalite', but rather 'quarante-all'. So, it's not deuce but 40-all. Any subsequent deuces in the game are called as egalite.

So, is there a reason why the first deuce of any game is called 40-all and subsequent ones are deuce? I've only ever noticed this as an idiosyncrasy of the French Open, never anywhere else.

I know it's hardly important, but it's been vexing me for years and I always forget to ask and by the time the French is over it never seems appropriate.

Thank you for pandering to my neuroses.

MarcusRock
Jun 3rd, 2003, 06:42 PM
Well you see Snuffkin it's like this ... http://www.angelfire.com/rock3/marcusrock/OuttaHere.gif

see ya

Cariaoke
Jun 3rd, 2003, 06:43 PM
well, maybe it's to denote that that's the first deuce. the quarante-all.

but all the other slams are in English and they never specify how many deuces have occurred. *shrug*

Oizo
Jun 3rd, 2003, 07:42 PM
There is actually no reason.

Dava
Jun 3rd, 2003, 07:45 PM
Its just tradition, I'm sure (I could be wrong) but I think they used to say 40 all ages ago at Wimbledon on the first deuce.

Also I noticed a lot of umpires just saying egalite anyway on the first deuce.

Giuliano
Jun 3rd, 2003, 07:46 PM
Lol omg oizo, your tennis knowledge amazes me ;).
He's right though. It just makes more sense to say fourty all since we say fifteen all and thirty all...

Mase
Jun 3rd, 2003, 07:47 PM
I will have to say ont thing though.....

GREAT OBSERVATION, I never noticed... ;)

RayRob
Jun 3rd, 2003, 10:51 PM
I never noticed either :rolleyes:

Pamela Shriver
Jun 3rd, 2003, 10:55 PM
I think the score should be changed to "Shriver" anyway, in honour of all I have done for the game.

Snuffkin
Jun 3rd, 2003, 11:21 PM
Spam, I think you've hit on something there.

I think I may well find myself shouting 'Shriver' when a game reaches deuce, during my jaunt to Wimbledon.

WtaTour4Ever
Jun 4th, 2003, 01:33 AM
I wondered that myself ...there is no point to 40 all, or even 30-40/40-30 ...after 30 all it should be ad-in/out then duece etc.

kell
Jun 4th, 2003, 02:06 AM
Well you see Snuffkin it's like this ... http://www.angelfire.com/rock3/marcusrock/OuttaHere.gif

see ya

lol!

selesfan
Jun 4th, 2003, 02:33 AM
I was wondering about this myself also, maybe we should e-mail ESPN and ask them. ;)

F-R-E-A-K
Jun 4th, 2003, 04:07 AM
ahh k

Oizo
Jun 4th, 2003, 09:04 AM
Lol omg oizo, your tennis knowledge amazes me ;).
He's right though. It just makes more sense to say fourty all since we say fifteen all and thirty all...

Well... ;) :p

moby
Jun 4th, 2003, 12:10 PM
i noticed it but i figured out it was just the french