If player is out with a long term injury (at least eight weeks) and already has three zeroes, then only mandatory tournaments (GS, PM and YEC) give additional zeroes.
its not a max of 3 mandatory 0 pointers but its a maximum of 3 non-mandatory 0 pointers
Both assumptions are false as TBE
s ranking points prediction as of 3/19/12 for Andrea Petkovic was and his ranking points prediction as of 4/02/12 will be.
After WTA’s ranking as of 3/19/12 shows 3,800 ranking points for Andrea Petkovic, it shows that WTA calculates ranking points for players with long term injuries the way I described in post # 101
and assumed in post # 96
If a Top 10 player requests and qualifies for long term injury (WTA 2012 Rulebook, p 20f), her ranking penalties (p 228) are a maximum of three 0 pointers for missing mandatory and committed tournaments along with more missed mandatory events (= Premier Mandatory Tournaments, Grand Slams and the Premier WTA Championships). As Andrea Petkovic missed GS Australian Open, PM Indian Wells & PM Miami in company with P5 Doha & P700 Dubai she committed the latter two are not penalized for ranking as of 4/02/12 and her ranking points total will be 3,410 points. However, if Andrea will also fail to play PM Madrid, she will receive a fourth mandatory 0 pointer during her long term injury.
Then again, not every doubtful situation is solved, eg:
[...] I thought last year [Kim] got 0 for San Diego but for some reason it is not on her ranking anymore
Kim’s first long term injury ended by playing P5 Toronto (but retired in her opening match due to left abdominal injury) which counts for one her 13 tournaments. As WTA defines a long term injury as an “injury or illness for at least eight (8) consecutive weeks during the Tour Year” (p 17) there is no room for not penalizing Kim for missing P700 San Diego 2011 as one of her commitment tournaments.
However, this flaw is modest comparing it to WTA’s explanation
why Sabine Lisicki “is able to take an over-the-limit fourth wild card […]and still retain the  points she has earned at Wimbledon” (according to an unnamed WTA source a Championship at P700 Charleston equals the year end Premier WTA Championship, defined at p 163). But why does a journalist acknowledge such an out of touch answer after he investigated the situation
and came to the correct conclusion?