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post #1 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 15th, 2010, 11:14 PM Thread Starter
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Question equality: can anyone explain this?

so if the men and woman had equal prize money at the Australian Open ( $2.1 million AUS dollars)

then why when converted into USD was Federer's prize at over US$1.9M (according to ATP) and Serena's was just over US$1.7M (according to WTA) ?
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post #2 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 16th, 2010, 08:37 AM
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Re: equality: can anyone explain this?

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Originally Posted by Nico_E View Post
so if the men and woman had equal prize money at the Australian Open ( $2.1 million AUS dollars)

then why when converted into USD was Federer's prize at over US$1.9M (according to ATP) and Serena's was just over US$1.7M (according to WTA) ?
They probably used a different AUD-USD exchange rate.

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post #3 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 16th, 2010, 10:43 AM
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Re: equality: can anyone explain this?

Sometimes, the tours use a different distribution system for prize money. For example, at one of the Spring US Hard Court Tier I events, the women's champion earned more than the men's champion because the women had a lesser proportion going to early-round losers. So while the overall prize money pot is the same (say, 4.5 million USD), they have independent control over how that is distributed among round-finishers.

In this case, I don't rightly know. But there's probably a good reason.
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post #4 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 16th, 2010, 10:59 AM
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Re: equality: can anyone explain this?

where did you find this info?

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post #5 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 16th, 2010, 11:07 AM
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Re: equality: can anyone explain this?

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Originally Posted by tennnisfannn View Post
where did you find this info?
I just had the same thought

Also, might it be a function of the communal players-pot that they divide up at the end of the year? Maybe the ATP makes you put in at year-end whereas the WTA just deducts immediately?

At any rate, I wouldn't worry about it. Someone would make a bigger fuss if it were truly unequal.
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post #6 of 6 (permalink) Old Feb 16th, 2010, 11:38 AM
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Re: equality: can anyone explain this?

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Originally Posted by OsloErik View Post
Sometimes, the tours use a different distribution system for prize money. For example, at one of the Spring US Hard Court Tier I events, the women's champion earned more than the men's champion because the women had a lesser proportion going to early-round losers. So while the overall prize money pot is the same (say, 4.5 million USD), they have independent control over how that is distributed among round-finishers.

In this case, I don't rightly know. But there's probably a good reason.
No. This is a Grand Slam. Not a tour event. Grand slams have never worked that pool system as far as I know.

It clearly says here that the male and female winner's prizemoney is $AUD 2.1 million each. http://www.australianopen.com/en_AU/...ize_money.html

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